And this is the first verse in Scripture in a LONG time that I hadn't seen discussed, or even mentioned.
I was in fact teaching live, talking about "What is all this concern about the Firstborn?" and had noted that (from this week's parsha, Bo, Exodus 10 through 13:16, the last topic was "what to tell your son about 'redemption of the first born'," when you are asked.
Polygyny is a natural consequence of the fact that a man has ONE true 'first-born,' (who thus receives the 'double-portion' of his inheritance) but may have more than one wife, EACH of whom can have a child which is the first to 'open [her] womb.' The difference show up dramatically in the Book of Numbers, where simple math, dividing the given number of firstborn into 603,550 gives a number that makes multiple wives an obvious conclusion.
The answer to that question is in Exodus 13:15, and has to do directly with the plague of the "death of the firstborn," including Pharoah's:
‘And it came to pass, when Pharaoh was stubborn about letting us go, that YHVH killed all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, both the firstborn of man and the firstborn of beast. Therefore I sacrifice to YHVH all males [including my animals] that open the womb, but all the firstborn of my sons I redeem.’
Note the plural, as in "my firstborn SONS."
Yes, the scoffers will rationalize, as always. And some English renderings will "PC-it-up," and say "children," to obfuscate the obvious. But the nagging Truth remains.
What is the most likely, and Scripture-consistent, way for a man to have more than one first-born son of his own?
I was in fact teaching live, talking about "What is all this concern about the Firstborn?" and had noted that (from this week's parsha, Bo, Exodus 10 through 13:16, the last topic was "what to tell your son about 'redemption of the first born'," when you are asked.
Polygyny is a natural consequence of the fact that a man has ONE true 'first-born,' (who thus receives the 'double-portion' of his inheritance) but may have more than one wife, EACH of whom can have a child which is the first to 'open [her] womb.' The difference show up dramatically in the Book of Numbers, where simple math, dividing the given number of firstborn into 603,550 gives a number that makes multiple wives an obvious conclusion.
The answer to that question is in Exodus 13:15, and has to do directly with the plague of the "death of the firstborn," including Pharoah's:
‘And it came to pass, when Pharaoh was stubborn about letting us go, that YHVH killed all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, both the firstborn of man and the firstborn of beast. Therefore I sacrifice to YHVH all males [including my animals] that open the womb, but all the firstborn of my sons I redeem.’
Note the plural, as in "my firstborn SONS."
Yes, the scoffers will rationalize, as always. And some English renderings will "PC-it-up," and say "children," to obfuscate the obvious. But the nagging Truth remains.
What is the most likely, and Scripture-consistent, way for a man to have more than one first-born son of his own?