Off-Grid Artist
Member
Here is a theoretical scenario I would like to put forth to you.
During debate about plural marriage, a man states that it is not a sin for men to have multiple spouses but that God does not like it. (Seeing that this is a common argument).
Often during such a debate a man will cite a "rule of equivalency" or something. I can't recall the name of this artificial construct, perhaps you can remind me. In essence, what is good for the man is good for the woman. If there is an instruction in the Bible written for one sex then it should apply to both sexes equally.
This argument is often brought up in conjunction with pointing out that anti-sodomy instructions govern the behaviors of men.
So, test out that theory on the initial premise given. The idea that it is not a sin for men to have multiple spouses but that God does not like it. Flip the premise, does the inverse still apply?
"It is not a sin for women to have multiple husbands but God does not like it."
Roll that around in the theoretical conversation. Does the logic hold? Does it sound right? Or would the debate opponent be averse to this statement.
Please point out any logical fallacies I may be employing.
During debate about plural marriage, a man states that it is not a sin for men to have multiple spouses but that God does not like it. (Seeing that this is a common argument).
Often during such a debate a man will cite a "rule of equivalency" or something. I can't recall the name of this artificial construct, perhaps you can remind me. In essence, what is good for the man is good for the woman. If there is an instruction in the Bible written for one sex then it should apply to both sexes equally.
This argument is often brought up in conjunction with pointing out that anti-sodomy instructions govern the behaviors of men.
So, test out that theory on the initial premise given. The idea that it is not a sin for men to have multiple spouses but that God does not like it. Flip the premise, does the inverse still apply?
"It is not a sin for women to have multiple husbands but God does not like it."
Roll that around in the theoretical conversation. Does the logic hold? Does it sound right? Or would the debate opponent be averse to this statement.
Please point out any logical fallacies I may be employing.